Total Depravity
Unconditional Election
Introduction
John 17:17-19
17 Sanctify them by Your truth. Your word is truth. 18 As You sent Me into the world, I also have sent them into the world. 19 And for their sakes I sanctify Myself, that they also may be sanctified by the truth.
The French philosopher Voltaire said: "Ever since God had made man in His own image, man has been trying to return the compliment."
God has made man in His own image, but ever since the fall of the human race, Man has been engaged in a relentless task to reverse that act. To define God by our image; to fashion God into our likeness. Of course as Christians, we renounce this as idolatrous. But sometimes as Christians, the errors in theologies that we hold reveal we are not be beyond making some of the same errors as the world. Likening the God of infinite power, holiness, goodness and wisdom, to finite and fallen humanity. This maybe is the most definite expression of our post postmodern culture. We think we get to define God. The religion of postmodernism says: Every person has the right to define God in whatever terms he or she wants. Again as Christians, we recoil from this. We believe that God defines Himself by the revelation He has given of Himself in His word. He alone tells us who he is. Consequently, our beliefs are to be defined by God's self-revelation. If we are honest with ourselves, how often as Christians do we disregard a doctrine when we hear it and it's against our human intellect even if it has biblical support? We decide for ourselves, that we just can't believe it. "I just can't believe the doctrine of Total Depravity." "I just can't believe the doctrine of Unconditional Election no matter what scriptures you give to me." "I just can't believe in a god like that."
Sometimes, for sure, such a claim is a result of lack of instruction. Other times however such a claim is the consequence of a lack of humility. Sometimes, you see, it's not the case that a person lacks adequate information but it's because the person lacks the will to embrace it because it does not meet his or her criteria of truth.
At that point you see, the sarcasm of Voltaire comes true to us. We've attempted to make God an image bearer of ourselves. Hopefully your prayer over the last few months, as we have been studying these doctrines, has been for God to move you in the opposite direction. This prayer should not just be merely for the truth, but for the necessary humility to embrace the truth. Especially for those moments when the truth poses a threat to our preconceptions of what ought to be right and what ought to be wrong.
This morning we come to what could be arguably the most controversial of the doctrines of grace. The L in the tulip acrostic. Limited atonement. To be completely honest, I am a bit uncomfortable with the "L". Not because I disagree with the concept it seeks to represent, which to my understanding, is all together scriptural, but because of the potential misunderstandings that often come with this doctrine. But let's just get right to the heart of the issue.
I would like to pose a question. I am convinced if we get the question right, we will get the answer right. If we are precise with the question the answer will become more obvious.
The Question
For whom did Jesus Christ die? For whom was Jesus Christ making atonement on the cross? Or more fully… Did Jesus Christ in his death provide a potential sacrifice for every man and woman who ever lived, lives now or ever will live?
Or, in his death did Jesus Christ provide an effectual sacrifice for a specific group of people; those whom God had chosen to eternal life.
Or, in his death did Jesus Christ provide an effectual sacrifice for a specific group of people; those whom God had chosen to eternal life.
Let's look at this issue a little differently. Here is another set of questions that ultimately lead us to the same end...
What was our Lord Jesus doing in his death on the cross?
- Was our Lord Jesus Christ actually making Redemption, reconciliation, and propitiation?
- Or was He simply making us reconcilable, redeemable. Turning away the wrath of God on our behalf, in potential?
Was Jesus Christ doing something on behalf of sinners that actually saved them or was he simply making them savable?
The 1,000,000 dollar question related to the subject is this:
How are we to limit the atonement?
You're probably saying ..."wait a second. You just made a presupposition about me. You assume that I limit the atonement and the only real question is how I limit the atonement".
And you would be exactly right. Every evangelical Christian limits the atonement. You might be thinking... "Oh I disagree" "If it's the one thing that I most certainly do not do its limit the atonement!"
Let me ask you... Are there at this present moment, people experiencing the realities of eternal condemnation? Are there people in Hell now? In the future will there be people in hell for all of eternity?
You might say… "It brings me no joy to think these terms, but yes of course there are and there will be people in Hell for all of eternity." You would be right in your answer. But in the answer you have confessed more then you may realize. You have just acknowledged the limitation in the atoning work of Jesus Christ.
You might say ..."There you go again. I believe that Jesus Christ died for all people without exception. Where's the limitation in that?" I will ask you the question again... Will some of these people whom Christ died, parish eternally? You should say… "Yes some people for whom Christ died will parish eternally." And if that's your answer, you just limited the atonement.
You see if we acknowledge that not all people will be saved, for whom we simultaneously assert substitutionary atonement has been made, then the only view of the atonement we can be left with is this...
On the cross no one was actually redeemed only that all people were made redeemable. Salvation has now been made available to all people, but actual for no people. Another way of saying this is… All were saved potentially but none were saved actually. This is called making the atonement Universal. And the natural cause of this must be limiting its accomplishment. Why? Because we've already agreed there will be some people in Hell. Very clearly not all people are saved.
Professor John Murray in his work "the Atonement" Published in 1976, said it like this:
Unless we believe in the final restoration of all mankind we cannot have an unlimited atonement. If some of those for whom atonement was made and redemption wrought, parish eternally then the atonement is not itself efficacious.
In opposition to the statement, what I am saying is: when Jesus Christ uttered from the cross that's great exclamation of victory "ta tolisi" "it is finished", he was speaking in actuality not potentiality. Something here was accomplished.
Not… Redemption made possible, not reconciliation made possible, not propitiation made possible.
But… Redemption accomplished, reconciliation secured, propitiation effected.
To say it most simply, he got what he paid for. On behalf of whom? For all? Then why will some perish eternally? If you believe it was for "all", does the righteous God unjustly require a double payment for sin? Both the payment of His Son and the payment of that of an unrepentant sinner. Some say it's because a person didn't believe. God condemns them for the sin of unbelief. But if you believe in the idea that Jesus Christ paid for all the sins of all the people, then there would be none condemned.
If you respond by saying: "Well he paid for the sins of all people except for the sins of unbelief." Then you just limited the atonement. Some would suggest that belief is the one work that you can contribute to salvation.
What the Bible says is this… The gift of salvation, in full, is the purchased accomplishment of Jesus Christ, including the saving expressions of repentance and faith that are given to a person, otherwise, unable to respond to God in any positive fashion.
If you believe in unlimited atonement you have to be a Universalist.
Let's look at some verses on God granting the "works" that are attributed by Armenians to be that of the works of a free will.
Faith
Paul says in Philippians 1:29
"For to you it has been granted for Christ's sake, not only to believe in Him, but also to suffer for His sake."
2 Peter 1:1.
"Simon Peter, a bond-servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, to those who have received a faith of the same kind as ours, by the righteousness of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ."
Repentance
2 Timothy 2:24-2624 And a servant of the Lord must not quarrel but be gentle to all, able to teach, patient, 25 in humility correcting those who are in opposition, if God perhaps will grant them repentance, so that they may know the truth, 26 and that they may come to their senses and escape the snare of the devil, having been taken captive by him to do his will.
Acts 11:18
And when they heard this, they quieted down, and glorified God, saying, 'Well then, God has granted to the Gentiles also the repentance that leads to life'.
When Peter and his associates witnessed the saving response to the gospel on the part of these Gentiles, to what conclusion did they come? Was it that by free will they met the conditions on the basis of which God would elect them? Peter saw their response and could only deduce that God had granted a gift to them of repentance.
Acts 5:31
31 Him God has exalted to His right hand to be Prince and Savior, to give repentance to Israel and forgiveness of sins.
Again let's review what the difference is in what we refer to as limited atonement as compared to unlimited atonement.
31 Him God has exalted to His right hand to be Prince and Savior, to give repentance to Israel and forgiveness of sins.
Again let's review what the difference is in what we refer to as limited atonement as compared to unlimited atonement.
Limited Atonement:
Sinners were redeemed… sinners were reconciled… God was propitiated.
This is compared to...
Unlimited Atonement:
Jesus died as propitiation for the benefit of mankind without exception. This would be the Universalist position.
Blended or softened view called: Amyraldism. This is sometimes called Hypothetical Redemption or what we've been calling potential redemption. In this view man has the potential within himself to believe, but because God saw that many would not act, God forcefully elected some.
In all cases we either have an atonement of high value or in a atonement of wide extension.
The Question:
Did Jesus Christ, in his death,
- Provide a potential sacrifice for every man and woman who ever lived, lives now or ever will live?
- Or, in his death, did Jesus Christ provide an effectual sacrifice for a specific group of people. Those whom God had chosen to eternal life.
Atonement According to Jesus
Let's see how the Bible answers this question. In fact let's see how Jesus answers this question. I think the best way to think about the atonement is the way that Jesus does. Again we'll look at John 17.
Lets review the structure of this prayer. It's actually pretty simple.
In verses 1 through 5, Jesus prays for himself.
In verses 6 through 19, Jesus prays for his disciples.
Finally, beginning in verse 20 through verse 26, Jesus expands the boundaries of his prayer to embrace all who will come to believe in him through the message of the Apostolic Gospel.
Now in this middle section verses, 6 through 19, Jesus makes 3 requests on behalf of his disciples. The third of which appears in versus 17, 18 and 19.
Here is the request itself:
1. Jesus prays for his joy to be fulfilled in them.
2. Jesus prays to keep them from the evil one.
3. Here is the request itself:
17 Sanctify them by Your truth. Your word is truth. 18 As You sent Me into the world, I also have sent them into the world. 19 And for their sakes I sanctify Myself, that they also may be sanctified by the truth.
What does Jesus mean by the term sanctify?
This is a term that belongs to a family of words that speak of holiness, and as you know, first and foremost "holy" is a term often used as an adjective for God himself. It's a way of saying that God is set apart. That God is distinct from his creation. Consequently, people or things that are set apart for God's purposes are said to be holy or sanctified.
For example Aaron and his sons were sanctified. Set apart for a sacred duty, to serve God as priests. The clothing that they wore for the carrying out of there Priestley function was said to be sanctified and set apart for that sacred duty. The altar in which they would offer sacrifices was sanctified uniquely dedicated to God for that sacred purpose. In fact, all the furnishings within the tabernacle and the tabernacle itself were said to be sanctified, separate from everything else for the distinct purpose assigned them by God. Now in a few separate other contexts, the word carries with it he slightly different nuance, a moral and ethical nuance a behavioral nuance. But in no way can that be the meaning of the word here because Jesus uses the same word to refer to himself verse 19...
17 Sanctify them by Your truth. Your word is truth. 18 As You sent Me into the world, I also have sent them into the world. 19 And for their sakes I sanctify Myself, that they also may be sanctified by the truth.
I think we all agree that Jesus is not suggesting that he is about to purify himself. To do this with this word here would assume that Jesus needed to take steps to make himself ethically or morally holy. Of course he could not mean this hear because Jesus is sinless. He is applying the far more common meaning of the word sanctify, to set apart to God in a special way and for a sacred purpose. And in the Gospel of John the context in which sanctify is used means to be set apart to God for the purpose of mission. Back in chapter 10 Jesus uses this very language to speak of himself as the one whom the father set apart or sanctified as his very own, sent into the world. Sanctification for mission.
So the sanctification for which Jesus prays verse 17, is directly related to the sending of these men into the world verse 18
17 Sanctify them by Your truth. Your word is truth. 18 As You sent Me into the world, I also have sent them into the world. 19 And for their sakes I sanctify Myself, that they also may be sanctified by the truth.
Jesus is not praying for God to infuse a greater righteousness in these men so they would be more godly. What Jesus is saying here is; set these men apart by your word, because of the work I have called them to. Jesus called them to the sacred purpose of mission to the world.
So the question that comes to mind is: On what basis can Jesus make this request of the Father?
Because the disciples were such good guys?
Because they were a cut above everyone else?
Because they earned this blessing by virtue of their commitment to Christ?
On what basis can Jesus make this request ?
The answer is very simple… Jesus can ask of his Father sanctifying grace on behalf of these men because, very soon on the cross he will earn it for them.
The Breakdown:
Request:
17 Sanctify them by Your truth. Your word is truth.
Reason :18 As You sent Me into the world, I also have sent them into the world.(Mission)
19 And for their sakes (on behalf of them) I sanctify (set apart myself for your Holy Purpose)
Myself, (So that) that they also may be sanctified (set apart for your Holy Purpose) (purpose is Mission)by the truth.
So even though the purpose statement of the disciples, being sanctified for mission, is clearly defined, how did Jesus sanctify himself? Well, in the Gospel of John, it is clearly set forth in context that Jesus set himself apart for the cross.
The sanctification of the disciples by means of the truth, that work of divine Grace on their hearts and minds, is essential to the success of the gospel, as they go out into this world. It would succeed only because Jesus secured the basis for this request to his Father. It was secured by his own act of self consecration.
To state it most simply: His death purchased the grace he asks his Father to dispense.
So let's go back to the common question who is the "them" in these verses. Let's look at the contrast starting in verse 14.
14 I have given them Your word; and the world has hated them because they are not of the world, just as I am not of the world.15 I do not pray that You should take them out of the world, but that You should keep them from the evil one. 16 They are not of the world, just as I am not of the world. 18 As You sent Me into the world, I also have sent them into the world. 19 And for their sakes I sanctify Myself, that they also may be sanctified by the truth.So who is the "them" in contrast to?
Answer: The World.
So, let me ask you now. Does Jesus say; "for the world I sanctify myself."? No... He says…I set myself apart as a sacrificial offering not for the world, but for them. This is very intentional. This is very particular. It's what we have been talking about for a while with The Lord's Prayer in this set of verses.
When we talked about election in the last segment, we talked about this very particular language that Jesus is using. This particular language was used in verse 2 of Chapter 17. Remember large group and smaller group. The large group.... all flesh over whom Jesus exercises authority . The small group… those to whom he gives eternal life. And Jesus defines the smaller group throughout this prayer in the phrase that repeats itself five times," those whom you have given me out of the world". This is the same group of people that Jesus has in mind when he gets to verse 19 and says "for their sakes I sanctify myself". Or set myself apart as a sacrificial offering. For good reason this prayer has been referred to as the high priestly prayer of our Lord Jesus Christ.
What was the high priest to do?
He was to pray for the people and to make atonement for the people. The people for whom the high priest would pray and make atonement and for were one in the same. The high priest would pray for the people of Israel and make it atonement for the people of Israel. This was represented by the twelve stones in the breast plate that he wore. The twelve tribes of Israel, the totality of the people of God. For further reading, look at the passages about Jesus being the High priest in the book of Hebrews.
The two Priestley functions that of making intercession for, and of making atonement, were coextensive. The book of Hebrews tells us that all the Old Testament priests were a foreshadowing of the great and ultimate high priest, Jesus Christ. Moreover, he fulfilled what the previous priests had done only in anticipation. So, just as it was with the Old Testament priests, so it is with the ultimate high priest, Jesus Christ, to pray and make atonement... For whom? They are one in the same... God's people. To show you that this is not just logical deduction let me ask you... for whom does this high priest Jesus Christ pray?
John 17:9
9 "I pray for them. I do not pray for the world but for those whom You have given Me, for they are Yours.
So, Christ is not praying for the world he's praying for those who belong to His Father by divine prerogative. So the question that needs to be dealt with is; if the functions of this high priest are coextensive, and if Jesus Christ prays only for his own, for whom then does He exercise this second priestly function, that of making atonement?
John 17:19
What's interesting here is there is no gap for those who Jesus will die for, and those whom will be truly sanctified. They are one in the same. This was not a potential death but an effectual death.
This is how it all ties together. If a person believes that Jesus Christ died a sacrificial death for the whole world, that person is left with a monumental problem. May it be said of the whole world that they will be truly sanctified? If you broaden the range of people for whom Jesus dies, you compromise the integrity of what his death accomplishes. According to Christ's on words his death and sanctification is very particular. It must be particular for the very reason it is not potential but effectual.
Isn't this the very thing that was announced before Christ's birth?
Matthew 1: 21
She will give birth to a son and you are to give him the name Jesus because he will save (do you hear potentialality or actuality?) His people from their sins.
Joseph you are the name this boy YAHWEH saves. Why? Not merely because he will apply a potential salvation for all, but because he will effect an actual salvation for some. He will save His people.
John 10:11
11 "I am the good shepherd. The good shepherd gives His life for the sheep.
There is very strong construction in this text. Jesus lays down his life for the sheep… not sheep. This is a distinct group. Later in the same section of Scripture, My sheep in verse 14.
Let me remind you in the same passage Jesus speaks to the Pharisees and tell them you are not my sheep. In verse 26.
Do you remember the wicked high priest Caiaphas?
John 11:49-52
49 And one of them, Caiaphas, being high priest that year, said to them, "You know nothing at all, 50 nor do you consider that it is expedient for us that one man should die for the people, and not that the whole nation should perish." 51 Now this he did not say on his own authority; but being high priest that year he prophesied that Jesus would die for the nation, 52 and not for that nation only, but also that He would gather together in one the children of God who were scattered abroad.
This is amazing ....here is this rank pagan declaring the doctrine of substitutionary atonement. But of course John tells us he didn't do this by accident. God took a hold of his pagan mouth and spoke through him. It couldn't be stated any more clearly. For whom would Jesus die? Not only for Jewish people but for a world of sinners that John identifies as the children of God. Are all people the children of God? Not according to Jesus. He said to the Pharisees you are off your father the devil. And look at verse 52. Jesus would gather not only the Jewish people but the Gentiles also. They would be called one people, the children of God. This is a direct reference to the church, not the world. Does Christ make the world one? No.
John 15:13
Greater love has no one than this that he lay down his life for his friends.
Do you hear the narrative in all these verses?
- His people
- The sheep
- Children of God
- His friends
Did Jesus Christ, in his death,
- Provide a potential sacrifice for every man and woman who ever lived, lives now or ever will live?
- Or, in his death, did Jesus Christ provide an effectual sacrifice for a specific group of people. Those whom God had chosen to eternal life.
Mark 10:44-45
44 And whoever of you desires to be first shall be slave of all. 45 For even the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give His life a ransom for many."
How about at the institution of the Lords Supper?
Mat 26:28
28 For this is My blood of the new covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins. 29 But I say to you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now on until that day when I drink it new with you in My Father's kingdom."
The Atonement According to Paul
In the book of Ephesians, Paul is concerned to show how all things ultimately will be brought under the headship of Jesus Christ in a glorious unity. Paul says that intention of being under the headship of Christ, is to express its self in a Christian home. In the following text let me draw you to an aspect that is often over looked.
Ephesians 5:25
25 Husbands, love your wives, just as Christ also loved the church and gave Himself for her,
Why should a Husband love his wife like he loves no other women? Because of the model God has given him to emulate. " Just as Christ loved the church".
How did Jesus display this Love for the Church? The next line interprets the prior phrase. By giving himself up for her.
He gave himself up for her why? Because he loved her!
The "her" here is a specific group of people, the Church.
You might say; "doesn't God love all people? " The answer to that is Yes…But, does God love all people exactly the same way? Not if your name is Esau, right. Some people will perish eternally and some people will not. This is not because, as we discovered in the last lesson on Unconditional Election, some people are good and some are bad. It is not based on merit. It is determined by the electing purposes of God. God does not love all people in exactly the same way. To be sure, God does some things for all people, but that is not to say that God does all things for all people. For example, if your pastor were to get up in front of the congregation and say that he loves all women in the church the same way he loves his wife, you'd run him out of town! You would say; "what is wrong with my pastor that he doesn't love his wife more"! To say that God loves all people equally is not only an expression of biblical illiteracy, in the end, such a statement servers to diminish God's love rather than expose the fullness of its intensity. God does not do all things for all people. God does all things for some people. What's clear here in Ephesians according to the sovereign election of the Father, Ephesians 1:4-5, is the effectual sacrifice of the Son; those chosen by the Father now atoned for by Jesus, Ephesians 5:25.
25 Husbands, love your wives, just as Christ also loved the church and gave Himself for her, 26 that He might sanctify and cleanse her with the washing of water by the word, 27 that He might present her to Himself a glorious church, not having spot or wrinkle or any such thing, but that she should be holy and without blemish.
Notice that something happens to those who Christ dies for in the verse above. His death is tied to efficacy. He died to make her holy, cleansing her, and to present her to himself as a radiant Church without stain or wrinkle or blemish, but Holy and blameless. Is "Holy and blameless or without blemish" a combination of word used anywhere else in the book of Ephesians?
Ephesians 1:4-5
4 just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love, 5 having predestined us to adoption as sons by Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the good pleasure of His will,
The death of the Son effects the predetermined purpose of the Father. It's a coordinated effort on the part of Father and Son. Something happens to the people for whom Christ dies. They are ultimately and finally made holy and blameless. Can this be said about all people without exception? Accroding to Christ, no and according to Paul, no.
The Atonement According to Heaven
How about the atonement according to Heaven? In Heaven they who Jesus is. In Heaven they know what Jesus has accomplished. On earth, well everything we do is mixed with confusion, error, mistakes, controversy, and perplexity. In Heaven the theology is perfect!
Here is the scene of the great lion-lamb in the throne room of God and he is surrounded by the living creatures and the elders who are singing of his worthiness.
Revelation 5:9
9 And they sang a new song, saying:
"You are worthy to take the scroll,
And to open its seals;
For You were slain,
And have redeemed us to God by Your blood
Out of every tribe and tongue and people and nation,
Here are the residents of heaven declaring the accomplishments of Jesus Christ. Look at the particularity that is assigned to His atoning work. Notice it does not say: You have redeemed us to God by Your blood
every tribe and tongue and people and nation. It is very clear here: "And have redeemed us to God by Your blood Out of every tribe and tongue and people and nation.
Then notice the efficacy that is tied to this particular atonement in Verse 10:
And have made us kings and priests to our God;
And we shall reign on the earth."
Who is the "us" and the "we" in the above verse? The same ones that have been redeemed buy his blood in the preceding verse.
Those for whom He dies, those for whom He spills his blood, those purchased out of every tribe language tongue and nation, He consequently will make them out to be a Kingdom of priests who will reign with Him on the new earth. May this be said of all people without exception?
This is completely consistent through and through.
According to Jesus, the atonement is limited and efficacious.
According to Paul, the atonement is limited and efficacious.
According to Heaven, the atonement is limited and efficacious.
The answer then to the question I posed earlier:
Did Jesus Christ, in his death,
- Provide a potential sacrifice for every man and woman who ever lived, lives now or ever will live?
- Or, in his death, did Jesus Christ provide an effectual sacrifice for a specific group of people. Those whom God had chosen to eternal life.
Jesus Christ, in his death, provided an effectual sacrifice for a specific group of people. Those whom God had chosen to eternal life.
Next Up… The "I" Irresistible Grace
Many Blessings,
The Systematic Maniac
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